Those given to Jesus by the Father were not the Calvinist elect, but rather they were the ones who had already believed the Old Testament and thus were followers of the Father before they met the Son. The Calvinist that I was debating introduced John 10:26 as an argument against my view of John 6, and I’d like to share my response with you as well. "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you." Let's look a little more in depth at John 10:26. The first phrase, "But ye believe not," does not give us any indication of what it was that the audience did not believe. To find that out, we have to begin at verse 24 where we read that the people said, "If thou be the Christ, tell us plainly." And in verse 25, we read the answer of Jesus: "I told you, and ye believed not." What then did the people not believe in verse 26? They did not believe that Jesus was the Christ which is to say that they did not believe Him to be the Messiah. This is the exact same message that the people did not believe in John 6. That's why John 6 and John 10 have so many parallels. In both passages, Jesus is rebuking the people for not believing that He was the Messiah.
In the second phrase of John 10:26, Jesus explains why the people did not believe that He was the Messiah. They did not believe that He was the Messiah because they were not His sheep, but this verse alone does not tell us how these people became the sheep of Christ. To learn this, we must gather a few facts from the surrounding context. When we look back at verse 8, we can see that the people referred to as sheep were sheep even before Jesus came. Therefore, verse 10 cannot be referring to a regeneration that is followed quickly by belief and salvation. These people were Christ's sheep before Jesus even came on the scene. Thus they could not have been made His sheep immediately prior to their belief in Him as is so often assumed, but this brings us to another question. How could people have been the sheep of Christ before Christ had come? The only plausible answer is that they were the sheep of the Father and thereby the sheep of Christ for the Son and the Father are one (vs. 30). This answer is born out by the Old Testament where the people of God are often referred to as His sheep. Consider, for example, Psalm 100:3 which proclaims that "we are his people, and the sheep of his pasture." This reference to the people of God as the sheep of God is also found in Psalm 79:13 and Psalm 95:7. The only people we read about who were called sheep before Christ came were the nation of Israel as a whole and the followers of God in particular. And just as the Son spoke of thieves and robbers coming before Him and harming the sheep, so the Father made many references to those who proved to be evil shepherds by bringing harm to His sheep (Jeremiah 50:17). Thus, the sheep spoken of in John 10:26 were not people who had received regeneration just prior to believing that Jesus was the Messiah. Rather, they were the people of God, the sheep of the Father who were also the sheep of the Son because the Son and the Father are one. This is the same message that Jesus presented in John 6. In John 6: 45, Jesus explained that the reason that some of the people did not come to Him as the Messiah was that they had not previously heard and learned from the Father. He explicitly stated that every man who had already heard the Father and who had already learned from the Father would come to the Son. This is perfectly consistent with what we find Jesus saying in John chapter 10 when He is once again rebuking those who did not believe that He was the Messiah. The explanatory scope of this view also encompasses John 8:41. In this passage, the unbelieving Jews claimed that God was their Father, but "Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God." Jesus then asked "Why do ye not understand my speech?" And He answered "even because ye cannot hear my word." Then in verse 47, Jesus told these unbelievers that "He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God." Which words were these that Jesus referred to here as "God's words"? They were the words of the Son that were mentioned in verse 43. And why did these people not hear the words of the Son? Because they were not the people of God. Therefore, if they who did not hear the words of the Son and did not believe the Son to be the Messiah were not the people of God, then they could not have been the sheep of God either. Who then is it that heareth the words of the Son and believeth that He is the Messiah? They who are the people of God, and they who are the people of God are the sheep of God. Thus, in all of these passages, Christ preached the same message to the Jews of His time. The sheep of God the Father -- those who are already the people of God -- were the ones who would hear the voice of God the Son, recognize His voice to be the same as the voice of the Father and believe that the Son is the Messiah. In other words, those in Jesus' day who were following the instruction of the Old Testament would recognize that Jesus was the fulfillment of the Old Testament and accept Him as the Messiah.
12 Comments
Antonio
7/6/2019 11:51:02 pm
bet explanation of John 10 ever
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Regan Darland
4/27/2021 06:49:42 pm
Ok WOW. This is the best, most coherent, most fluent and consistent explanation of John 6 EVER. You just lifted my Calvinism chains and relieved me of that heavy burden. Thank you.
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Mark
12/3/2021 11:22:28 am
I read a GotQuestions article that cited John 6:26 and my further research led me across this page. The author pointed out that Jesus did not say "You are not my sheep because you dont believe", but "you dont believe because you arent my sheep." Thus predestination is proven again.
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Bill Fortenberry
12/15/2021 07:14:35 pm
The Bible is never obsolete. I don't use John 10:26 when presenting the gospel, but I don't use Luke 13:32 in that context either. The Bible covers a broad range of topics, and there are many verses that are very useful in some contexts even though they are not helpful at all in other contexts. That's just the nature of literature.
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James
11/26/2022 07:05:51 am
This is not an argument, just a question, so please do not answer with an argument. If John 10:26 is “not obsolete” (as you said there is not obsolete passage), why would you explicitly exclude it when sharing the gospel?
Bill Fortenberry
11/27/2022 03:10:16 am
James, do you include Luke 13:32 when you are sharing the gospel?
James
11/28/2022 03:36:48 am
Why should I leave any of the Gospels out? If a question leads me there, why shouldn’t I use it? Using all 4 would help reinforce the my sharing with an unsaved/unconverted person that they are the divinely inspired Word of God.
Bill Fortenberry
11/28/2022 10:20:53 am
You clearly do not understand what I am saying, but that's fine. As long as you are sharing the gospel, it will be okay. 8/21/2023 07:03:19 pm
Do you see how much you have to twist the bible to fit Arminian teachings lol. You know that you are all natural men suppressing the truth and far from the Kingdom of God. Read Roman’s 9 and see how much twisting and “interpreting” you have to do to get your Arminian beliefs about the Bible and pacify your conscience and make you think you have a part in your salvation. God saves. Through and through. Rom 9, 1 Peter 2:8, John 3:6-8, 1 cor 2:14, Matt 11:25 acts 13:48. It goes on and on. Read these verses and repent of your human reasoning. Take sides against yourself and believe the truth! God chooses us! We don’t choose him! If not for God’s election of some to heaven then no one would go!!! Black and white teachings are tossed and turned aside to fit your natural beliefs of God rather than accepting what the book says. We have to go to obscure verses and make conclusive falsehoods appear logical to fit your human reasoning and make God a liar when he says that man cannot believe because they are spiritually dead. REPENT!
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Chase
9/23/2023 03:07:53 pm
Romans 9 is not teaching that God chooses individuals for salvation... It's teaching that God has the right to offer salvation to the gentiles. Just like he chose Jacob over Esau, He sure as heck can choose the gentile nations for salvation as well.
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Lucian
4/14/2024 04:45:56 pm
“I am found of them that sought me not” (Isa 65:1). “For many be called, but few chosen” (Mat 20:16). “Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you” (Joh 15:16). “I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me” (Joh 17:9). “As many as were ordained to eternal life believed” (Act 13:48). “There is a remnant according to the election of grace” (Rom 11:5). “He hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him” (Eph 1:4).
Naomi
3/28/2024 07:43:28 pm
Excellent, well-said explanation. This is very helpful in clarifying the Calvinist interpretations I'd previously heard and helps me understand the text in, I believe, it's proper context and way. Thank you!
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Bill Fortenberry is a Christian philosopher and historian in Birmingham, AL. Bill's work has been cited in several legal journals, and he has appeared as a guest on shows including The Dr. Gina Show, The Michael Hart Show, and Real Science Radio.
Contact Us if you would like to schedule Bill to speak to your church, group, or club. "Give instruction to a wise man, and he will be yet wiser: teach a just man, and he will increase in learning." (Proverbs 9:9)
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